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  1. Article ; Online: Renal Columns.

    Levy, Zachary David / Ohringer, Alison Rose / Haight, Bruce

    JAMA

    2021  Volume 326, Issue 4, Page(s) 294

    Language English
    Publishing date 2021-07-26
    Publishing country United States
    Document type Journal Article
    ZDB-ID 2958-0
    ISSN 1538-3598 ; 0254-9077 ; 0002-9955 ; 0098-7484
    ISSN (online) 1538-3598
    ISSN 0254-9077 ; 0002-9955 ; 0098-7484
    DOI 10.1001/jama.2021.4061
    Database MEDical Literature Analysis and Retrieval System OnLINE

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  2. Article: Sepsis-Induced Coagulopathy and Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: What We Need to Know and How to Manage for Prolonged Casualty Care.

    Nam, Jason J / Wong, An-Kwok Ian / Cantong, David / Cook, John Alexander / Andrews, Zachary / Levy, Jerrold H

    Journal of special operations medicine : a peer reviewed journal for SOF medical professionals

    2023  Volume 23, Issue 2, Page(s) 118–121

    Abstract: Coagulopathy can occur in trauma, and it can affect septic patients as a host tries to respond to infection. Sometimes, it can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) with a high potential for mortality. New research has delineated risk ... ...

    Abstract Coagulopathy can occur in trauma, and it can affect septic patients as a host tries to respond to infection. Sometimes, it can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) with a high potential for mortality. New research has delineated risk factors that include neutrophil extracellular traps and endothelial glycocalyx shedding. Managing DIC in septic patients focuses on first treating the underlying cause of sepsis. Further, the International Society on Thrombolysis and Haemostasis (ISTH) has DIC diagnostic criteria. "Sepsis-induced coagulopathy" (SIC) is a new category. Therapy of SIC focuses on treating the underlying infection and the ensuing coagulopathy. Most therapeutic approaches to SIC have focused on anticoagulant therapy. This review will discuss SIC and DIC and how they are relevant to prolonged casualty care (PCC).
    MeSH term(s) Humans ; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation/diagnosis ; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation/etiology ; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation/therapy ; Sepsis/complications ; Sepsis/diagnosis ; Sepsis/therapy
    Language English
    Publishing date 2023-06-08
    Publishing country United States
    Document type Review ; Journal Article
    ZDB-ID 3006517-3
    ISSN 1553-9768
    ISSN 1553-9768
    DOI 10.55460/6OZC-JIOV
    Database MEDical Literature Analysis and Retrieval System OnLINE

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  3. Article ; Online: Exam 3 Questions

    Levy, Zachary David

    Absolute Neurocritical Care Review

    Abstract: 1. Which of thefollowing is true regarding the Barrow classification system for carotid cavernous fistulae? A. Type A shunts are indirect shunts between branches of the internal carotid artery (ICA) and cavernous sinus. B. Type B shunts are direct shunts ...

    Abstract 1. Which of thefollowing is true regarding the Barrow classification system for carotid cavernous fistulae? A. Type A shunts are indirect shunts between branches of the internal carotid artery (ICA) and cavernous sinus. B. Type B shunts are direct shunts between the ICA and cavernous sinus. C. Type C shunts are indirect shunts between branches of the external carotid artery (ECA) and cavernous sinus. D. Type D shunts are high-flow shunts. E. All of the above. 2. A 80-year-old male with an intracranial neoplasm presents to the emergency department with weight loss, drowsiness, and tachypnea for 1 month. On examination, his respiratory rate is 28 breaths/minute with a normal oxygen saturation. His lungs are clear to auscultation. An arterial blood gas reveals the following: pH 7.60, PCO(2) 14 mmHg, PaO(2) A. Central neurogenic hyperventilation. B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. C. Apneustic breathing. D. Ataxic breathing. E. Cluster breathing. 3. A 48-year-old female is admitted to the ICU with a Hunt-Hess 2 modified Fisher 2 subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). She remains intact neuro-cognitively, but has transcranial doppler (TCD) mean flow velocities up to 150 cm/s, and a serum platelet count twice her baseline. You are worried about vasospasm and impending delayed cerebral ischemia. Which of the following should be performed next? A. An additional 100 mL/h of normal saline should be given on top of maintenance fluids. B. CT perfusion scan to assess for any ongoing hypoperfusion. C. Evaluate volume status with hemodynamic monitoring and give fluid boluses accordingly. D. Induce hypertension to a systolic pressure of 160 mmHg. E. Conventional angiography. 4. A 25-year-old male is currently in the ICU with an anoxic brain injury after diving into shallow waters and suffering a high cervical cord transection. Two weeks after his injury, he remains comatose, has diffuse loss of gray-white differentiation on noncontrast head CT, and exhibits myoclonic status epilepticus. The family is devastated by his poor prognosis, and distraught by his uncontrollable shaking. What is your rationale behind your decision about starting an antiepileptic regimen? A. Phenytoin and propofol will be used, and escalated until eradication of his myoclonus to assess his underlying brain damage. B. Levetiracetam and lacosamide will be used, and escalated until eradication of his myoclonus to assess his underlying brain damage. C. If EEG reveals dyssynchronous spikes on a severely slow background, myoclonus invariably portends death or a vegetative state, and midazolam should only be used for palliative purposes. D. Regardless of EEG or clinical exam, half of patients in myoclonic status epilepticus will have a good neurologic recovery by 90 days. E. Regardless of EEG or clinical exam, myoclonic status epilepticus is always ominous, not amenable to treatment. and should lead to immediate withdrawal of life-support. 5. An 18-year-old female presents to the emergency department with several months of progressive left-sided hearing loss and tinnitus. An MRI of the brain is performed, demonstrating bilateral enhancing dumbbell shaped lesions extending from the auditory canal to the cerebellopontine angle. Which of the following genetic disorders is associated with this finding? A. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. B. Neurofibromatosis type II. C. Tuberous sclerosis. D. Schwannomatosis. E. Alport syndrome. 6. A 23-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend with difficulty breathing. She cannot provide her history, but her boyfriend states that she has asthma, although he is unsure of her medications. On physical exam the woman is noted to have nasal flaring, is diaphoretic, cannot lie flat, and is breathing at a rate of 40 breaths/minute. She is given short acting ß(2) agonist treatments with no obvious relief of her symptoms. Serial arterial blood gases are done and show a pCO(2) A. Continue short-acting ß(2) agonist treatment, as her pCO(2) is normalizing, and continue observation in the emergency department. B. Intubate the patient and admit to the ICU. C. Administer intravenous corticosteroids and admit to the general medical ward. D. Place the patient on non-invasive positive pressure ventilation and admit to the general medical ward. E. Administer a long-acting ß(2) agonist agent and admit to the general medical ward. 7. Cerebellar hypoplasia without displacement through the foramen magnum is best described as a: A. Chiari I malformation. B. Chiari II malformation. C. Chiari III malformation. D. Chiari IV malformation. E. Chiari V malformation. 8. A 77-year-old female with a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and diabetes mellitus has recently been taken off of warfarin due to frequent falls and gait instability. She has not had any prior significant bleeding or ischemic events. A recent echocardiogram demonstrates moderate aortic regurgitation with grossly preserved systolic and diastolic function. Which of the following elements is not a stroke risk factor in this patient? A. Age. B. Female gender. C. Hypertension. D. Diabetes mellitus. E. Aortic regurgitation. 9. Which of the following is the most effective measure to prevent aspiration in an intubated patient? A. Elevation of the head of the bed. B. Subglottic drainage. C. Gastric volume monitoring. D. Nasogastric tube placement. E. Percutaneous endoscopic gastrotomy. 10. Which of the following is a unique feature of Comprehensive Stroke Centers? A. Dedicated stroke unit availability. B. 24/7 ability to administer tPA. C. 24/7 interventional neuroradiology availability. D. 24/7 CT angiography availability. E. Ambulance receiving capability. 11. Which of the following segments of the internal carotid artery is farthest from it’s origin? A. Ophthalmic segment. B. Petrous segment. C. Cavernous segment. D. Clinoid segment. E. Lacerum segment. 12. A 44-year-old male is intubated secondary to a high-grade subarachnoid hemorrhage, and is admitted to the ICU. On the sixth postoperative day, he develops worsening hypoxemia and bilateral interstitial infiltrates on his chest x-ray, consistent with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following interventions has not been demonstrated to improve outcomes in ARDS in a prospective randomized trial? A. Prone positioning. B. Lung-protective ventilation. C. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO). D. Neuromuscular blocking agents. E. High-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV). 13. A 56-year-old female is currently intubated in the ICU following a left basal ganglia hemorrhage. The nurse reports the patient is having copious thick secretions, and you are considering initiating inhaled N-acetylcysteine therapy. What element of the patient’s past medical history may serve as a relative contraindication to this treatment? A. Amiodarine-induced pulmonary fibrosis. B. Newly diagnosed metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung. C. Recent course of outpatient antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia. D. Poorly controlled asthma. E. All of the above. 14. An 18-year-old female is currently being evaluated for amenorrhea. In addition, she endorses fatigue, cold intolerance, polyuria and dizziness upon standing. On examination, she is thin but appears well hydrated. Blood pressure and heart rate when supine are 90/60 mmHg and 80 beats/minute, respectively. When standing, they are 60/40 mmHg and 120 beats/minute, respectively. Pubic and axillary hair growth is sparse. Eye examination reveals an asymmetric bitemporal hemianopsia. Imaging reveals a cystic, calcified suprasellar mass. Which of the following statements is true regarding the most likely diagnosis? A. Medical management is the mainstay of treatment. B. Recovery of pituitary function is common. C. This patient likely has the papillary subtype of this neoplasm. D. This neoplasm has a bimodal age distribution. E. This neoplasm arises from modified glial cells that reside in the infundibular neurohypophysis. 15. A 55-year-old female presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home. The patient was arguing with her husband before she suddenly became unresponsive. The patient is intubated, and a non-contrast head CT is performed (see Image 1). The patient then undergoes conventional angiography, revealing occlusion of the proximal bilateral middle cerebral and anterior cerebral arteries with extensive collateral vessels noted. All of the following are true regarding the most likely diagnosis except: A. The disease can be either congenital or acquired. B. Patients may suffer recurrent infarcts, or remain completely asymptomatic. C. There are no effective surgical interventions available. D. It is more commonly seen in women than in men. E. Patients may initially present with persistent headaches;
    Keywords covid19
    Publisher PMC
    Document type Article ; Online
    DOI 10.1007/978-3-319-64632-9_3
    Database COVID19

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  4. Article ; Online: Exam 1 Questions

    Levy, Zachary David

    Absolute Neurocritical Care Review

    Abstract: 1. Which of the following is the most common form of incomplete spinal cord injury? A. Central cord syndrome. B. Cauda equina syndrome. C. Anterior spinal cord syndrome. D. Posterior spinal cord syndrome. E. Brown-Sequard lesion. 2. A 64-year-old male ... ...

    Abstract 1. Which of the following is the most common form of incomplete spinal cord injury? A. Central cord syndrome. B. Cauda equina syndrome. C. Anterior spinal cord syndrome. D. Posterior spinal cord syndrome. E. Brown-Sequard lesion. 2. A 64-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse and congestive heart failure is currently recovering from excision of a large right shoulder lesion suspicious for melanoma. Postoperatively, he is experiencing bleeding and oozing from his surgical site that has persisted despite suture repair and direct pressure for an extended period of time. His labs are drawn, and are as follows: platelets 141 × 10(3)/mL, INR 1.2, fibrinogen 90 mg/dL. Which of the following blood products should be administered next? A. Fresh frozen plasma. B. Cryoprecipitate. C. Prothrombin complex concentrate. D. Recombinant activated factor VII. E. Aminocaproic acid. 3. A 75-year-old, 90 kg male with a history of peripheral vascular disease, coronary artery disease, and epilepsy following a recent cerebral infarction presents to the emergency department after having three witnessed seizures at home. He was intubated at the scene by the paramedics, and received 8 mg of intravenous lorazepam and 1 g of phenytoin. While you are evaluating him, he has another generalized tonic-clonic seizure, and the nurse asks if you would like to initiate a continuous propofol infusion. His blood pressure is 94/42 mmHg, and he is having numerous premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the electrocardiographic monitor. He has no history of platelet or liver dysfunction. Which of the following should be performed next? A. Complete the phenytoin load to attain 20 mg/kg, then start propofol infusion. B. Complete the phenytoin load to attain 20 mg/kg only C. Administer valproate, 30 mg/kg over 10 min, as well as midazolam 0.2 mg/kg. D. Start immediate midazolam infusion at 2 mg/kg/h. E. Give a 1 L normal saline bolus, and start a norepinephrine infusion to normalize blood pressure. 4. A 38-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. He is found to have significant ecchymoses on his chest and face, with multiple apparent rib fractures. He is in mild respiratory distress, with an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air, and hypotensive, with a systolic blood pressure of 88 mmHg. He has absent breath sounds on the right side. There is currently a delay in obtain a bedside portable chest x-ray. Which of the following should be performed next? A. 28-French chest tube placement. B. 16-French chest tube placement. C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) of the chest. D. Administer 30 cc/kg crystalloid. E. Obtain urgent cardiothoracic surgery consult. 5. Stress ulcer prophylaxis is often undertaken to prevent clinically important upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Which of the following factors puts patients at highest risk for such bleeding episodes? A. Respiratory failure. B. History of alcohol abuse. C. NPO status. D. Diverticulitis. E. All of the above. 6. In an intact heart, the Frank-Starling mechanism describes contractility increases in responses to: A. Decreased preload. B. Increased afterload. C. Decreased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure. D. Increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume. E. Increased pulmonary vascular resistance. 7. A 68-year-old female with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypothyroidism, and gastric cancer on total parenteral nutrition is currently in the ICU following a small traumatic subdural hemorrhage. On hospital day 5, the patient begins to spike fevers that persist despite broad spectrum antibiotic coverage with vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. She is otherwise hemodynamically stable. The lab calls you to notify you that multiple sets of blood cultures display budding yeast forms and pseudohyphae. Which of the following should be administered next? A. Fluconazole. B. Posaconazole. C. Anidulafungin. D. Caspofungin. E. Amphotericin B. 8. A 56-year-old male with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and morbid obesity is currently intubated in the ICU following a left middle cerebral artery infarct. The respiratory therapist alerts you the fact that the patient has become markedly dysynchronous with the ventilator, including breath holding episodes, breath stacking, and resisting ventilator-delivered breaths. A variety of pressure- and volume-regulated ventilator modes have been attempted without improvement, as well as boluses of both fentanyl and midazolam. The most recent arterial blood gas is as follows: pH 7.19, PaCO(2) 78 mmHg, PaO(2) A. Prone the patient. B. Administer nitric oxide at 10 parts per million. C. Administer 10 mg of cisatracurium. D. Administer a mixture of 60% helium/40% oxygen. E. Administer a continuous infusion of phenobarbital. 9. Compared to lactulose for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy, polyethylene glycol (PEG) has been shown to: A. Decrease in-hospital mortality. B. More rapidly improve symptoms. C. Increase the rate of gastrointestinal complications. D. Increase the incidence of major electrolyte abnormalities. E. None of the above. 10. Which of the following neurologic insults is the least likely to cause central (non-infectious) fever in the ICU? A. Intracranial neoplasm. B. Intraventricular hemorrhage. C. Normal pressure hydrocephalus. D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage. E. Traumatic brain injury. 11. A 57-year-old male with a history of epilepsy and medication noncompliance is admitted to a small community hospital after a brief tonic-clonic seizure. A non-contrast head CT on admission is normal. On the second hospital day, the patient begins to complain of severe substernal chest pressure, and an urgent bedside EKG shows evidence of an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). The nearest percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) capable center is approximately 150 min away by the fastest transport method available. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s care? A. Arrange for transport to the closest PCI center with anticipated balloon time within 30 min of arrival. B. Prepare to administer fibrinolytic therapy. C. Consult cardiothoracic surgery for possible coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). D. Place the patient on a continuous nitroglycerine infusion and administer aspirin, clopidogrel, and heparin. E. Await serum cardiac biomarkers and repeat EKG in 1 h. 12. A 62-year-old male with unknown past medical history who recently immigrated from El Salvador is currently in the stroke unit after suffering from an acute left middle cerebral artery infarction. The patient is aphasic; his wife states that he been in his usual state of health lately, and denies any recent weakness, dizziness, chest pain, cough, shortness of breath, or fevers. On reviewing this patient’s belongings, the nurse discovers a bottle of isoniazid, as well as paperwork demonstrating a positive quantiferon gold test performed at a local clinic approximately 3 weeks ago. He does not appear to be on any other medications. A bedside portable chest x-ray is performed, which preliminarily appears normal. Which of the following should be performed next? A. Move the patient to a negative pressure isolation room, continue isoniazid. B. Isolate the patient, continue isoniazid, add rifampin. C. Isolate the patient, continue isoniazid, add rifampin and pyrazinamide. D. Isolate the patient, continue isoniazid, add rifampin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol. E. None of the above. 13. A 56-year-old, 70 kg female patient in oliguric renal failure would be expected to have a daily urine output of: A. No more than 50 mL. B. No more than 400 mL. C. No more than 800 mL. D. Less than 70 mL/h. E. Less than 35 mL/h. 14. A 37-year-old female with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the ICU with status epilepticus. She required several doses of lorazepam in the emergency department in addition to fosphenytoin, intubation, and a continuous propofol infusion. There was concern for aspiration in the prehospital setting. Approximately 3 days after being admitted to the hospital, her respiratory status has worsened; she is increasingly hypoxic, and her chest x-ray demonstrates diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates. The patient is afebrile with minimal secretions. Her most recent arterial blood gas is as follows: pH 7.21, PaO(2) 107 mmHg, PCO(2) 55 mmHg, 100% FiO(2), and a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 8 cm H(2)O. According to the Berlin criteria, how would you categorize this patient’s acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A. Acute lung injury (ALI). B. Mild ARDS. C. Moderate ARDS. D. Severe ARDS. E. None of the above. 15. An 80-year-old male presents to the emergency department with multiple episodes of bright red blood per rectum. He is on aspirin and clopidogrel for a history of coronary artery disease and a previous transient ischemic attack. He underwent aortic graft surgery for repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 2 years ago. A complete blood count and coagulation profile are all within normal limits. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 102/58 mmHg, heart rate 98 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, and temperature 98.3 °F. Which of the following is the next best step in the care of this patient? A. Transfuse platelets, fresh frozen plasma, and recombinant factor VIIa. B. Consult gastroenterology for emergent upper endoscopy. C. Consult gastroenterology for emergent colonoscopy. D. CT angiogram of the abdomen and pelvis. E. Expectant management with fluids and blood transfusions. 16. A thrombus in which of the following veins would not be considered a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A. Popliteal vein. B. Soleal vein. C. Femoral vein. D. Gastrocnemius vein. E. Greater saphenous vein. 17. After partial resection of the pituitary stalk, secretion of which of the following hormones will be most affected? A. Oxytocin. B. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone. C. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone. D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone. E. All will be equally affected. 18. A 58-year-old female with a history of hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, metastatic ovarian cancer, and bilateral deep venous thrombosis status post recent inferior vena cava filter placement presents to the emergency department with right flank pain. She states the pain began approximately 1 h ago when bending down to pick something off the floor, and that it is constant and severe in nature. She denies dysuria or hematuria. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 108/62 mmHg, heart rate 121 beats/min, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 99% on room air, and temperature 99.6 °F. A CT scan of the abdomen is obtained (see Image 1). Which of the following is the next best step in this patient’s management? A. Administer vancomycin and cefepime, and draw two sets of blood cultures. B. Urgent vascular surgery consult. C. Immediately place the patient on her left side. D. Rapid sequence intubation with mechanical ventilation. E. Perform bedside diagnostic peritoneal lavage;
    Keywords covid19
    Publisher PMC
    Document type Article ; Online
    DOI 10.1007/978-3-319-64632-9_1
    Database COVID19

    Kategorien

  5. Article ; Online: Exam 4 Questions

    Levy, Zachary David

    Absolute Neurocritical Care Review

    Abstract: 1. A 73-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is currently in the stroke unit after suffering a right middle cerebral artery infarct. His symptoms started 2 h prior to arrival at the hospital, and tPA was administered. The ... ...

    Abstract 1. A 73-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is currently in the stroke unit after suffering a right middle cerebral artery infarct. His symptoms started 2 h prior to arrival at the hospital, and tPA was administered. The patient is plegic on the left side and with mild dysarthria, but is otherwise neurologically intact. His labwork is within normal limits. Which of the following describes the optimal deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis regimen for this patient? A. Wait 6 h post tPA, then administer unfractionated heparin (UFH) along with intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC). B. Wait 24 h post tPA, then administer UFH along with IPC. C. Wait 6 h post tPA, then administer low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) along with IPC. D. Wait 24 h post tPA, then administer LMWH along with IPC. E. IPC only for the first 72 h, then LMWH or UFH after obtaining follow-up imaging. 2. All of the following causes of acute encephalitis have the matching characteristic radiological features except: A. Autoimmune limbic encephalitis: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the mesial temporal lobes. B. Cytomegalovirus: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the subependymal white matter. C. JC virus: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the parieto-occipital lobes and corpus callosum. D. Herpes simplex virus type 1: restricted diffusion in frontal/temporal lobes and insular cortex. E. Varicella zoster: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the brainstem. 3. Which of the following categorizations is most accurate regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in the setting of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)? A. Non-neurogenic, non-cardiogenic. B. Neurogenic, non-cardiogenic. C. Neurogenic, cardiogenic. D. Non-neurogenic, cardiogenic. E. None of the above accurately reflect ARDS in SAH. 4. A 52-year-old female is admitted to the ICU with a Hunt-Hess 1, modified Fisher 2 subarachnoid hemorrhage. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and chronic renal insufficiency. She undergoes craniotomy for surgical clipping of an anterior cerebral artery aneurysm, and does not experience any additional complications. Two weeks later, she begins complaining of left calf pain, and a lower extremity sonogram demonstrated a proximal deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient weighs 60 kg. Her laboratory values are as follows: sodium 142 mEq/L, potassium 3.4 mEq/L, carbon dioxide 18 mEq/L, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 70 mg/dL, and serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL. What would be the optimal treatment for this patient’s proximal DVT? A. Unfractionated heparin infusion for at least 5 days concomitantly with warfarin therapy. B. Low molecular weight heparin 60 mg twice a day for at least 5 days concomitantly with warfarin therapy. C. Fondaparinux 7.5 mg daily for 5 days followed by warfarin therapy. D. Apixaban 10 mg twice daily for 7 days followed by 5 mg twice daily. E. Rivaroxaban 15 mg twice daily for 21 days followed by 20 mg once daily. 5. All of the following are currently implicated in uremic encephalopathy except: A. Derangements in cerebral metabolism. B. Alterations in the blood-brain barrier. C. Accumulation of circulating toxins. D. Imbalance of endogenous neurotransmitters. E. Recurrent lobar hemorrhages. 6. A 70-year-old female is hospitalized with a recent ischemic infarct. As part of stroke core measures, you obtain a hemoglobin A1c of 10.0. What is an approximate estimation of this patient’s average blood glucose level over the last several months? A. 70 mg/dL. B. 100 mg/dL. C. 130 mg/dL. D. 190 mg/dL. E. 240 mg/dL. 7. A 28-year-old female with no known past medical history is in the ICU in status epilepticus, with anti-N-methyl D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antibodies isolated in the cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following is most likely to identify the root cause of her illness? A. Transvaginal ultrasound. B. Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest. C. Contrast-enhanced CT of the brain. D. Virtual colonography. E. Thorough examination of the skin, particularly in sun-exposed areas. 8. A 17-year-old male with no significant past medical history collapses during a high school football game, and goes into cardiac arrest. He did not have any complaints earlier in the day. The patient is brought to a nearby hospital, where is he resuscitated, intubated, and transferred to the ICU for further management. The patient is currently undergoing therapeutic hypothermia, and a work-up is underway to determine the cause of his sudden collapse. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rupture of a previously undiagnosed cerebral aneurysm. B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. C. Commotio cordis. D. Severe hyponatremia and cerebral edema. E. Brugada syndrome. 9. A 31-year-old female at 38 weeks gestation is currently hospitalized for the treatment of preeclampsia. Due to her medical condition, her obstetrician is currently considering induced labor. At which point will this patient no longer be at risk for developing frank seizure activity as a result of her condition? A. 48 h postpartum. B. 1 week after delivery. C. 2 weeks after delivery. D. 4 weeks after delivery. E. 6 weeks after delivery. 10. A 38-year-old male with no prior medical history presents to the emergency department with fever and severe headaches for several days. A CT scan of the brain is unremarkable, and the results of a lumbar puncture are pending. What is the most appropriate empiric antimicrobial regimen at this time? A. Cefazolin and vancomycin. B. Ceftriaxone and vancomycin. C. Ceftriaxone, vancomycin and ampicillin. D. Piperacillin/tazobactam and vancomycin. E. Meropenem and vancomycin. 11. The majority of intramedullary spinal cord neoplasms are: A. Astrocytomas. B. Meningiomas. C. Metastatic lesions. D. Ependymomas. E. Hemangioblastomas. 12. Which of the following derived parameter formulas is correct? A. Cardiac index = cardiac output x body surface area. B. Stroke volume = cardiac output/heart rate. C. Systemic vascular resistance = 80 × (mean arterial pressure/cardiac output). D. Pulmonary vascular resistance = 80 × (mean pulmonary artery pressure/cardiac output). E. All of the above are correct. 13. A 23-year-old female marathon runner is currently in the ICU after suffering from heat stroke following an outdoor run on a particularly hot summer day. She was initially delirious in the emergency department, but progressed to coma and respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation. Her oral temperature is 42.1 °C. Which of the following would be most effective in reducing this patient’s severe hyperthermia? A. Regularly scheduled alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen. B. Spraying room temperature water on the patient, followed by fanning. C. Ice water immersion. D. Dantrolene sodium, 2.5 mg/kg. E. Application of ice packs to the groin and axilla. 14. Hyperinsulinemia-euglycemia (HIE) therapy may be useful for toxicity related to which of the following? A. Tricyclic antidepressants. B. Calcium channel blockers. C. Aspirin. D. Digoxin. E. Lithium. 15. A 71-year-old female with a history of alcohol abuse is currently intubated in the ICU following a catastrophic spontaneous left basal ganglia hemorrhage with resultant herniation. You have just declared her brain dead. The patient’s family agrees to make her an organ donor, and the organ donation coordinator requests you initiate levothyroxine therapy. Which of the following benefits would be expected with this treatment? A. Increase the number of solid organs available for transplant. B. Eliminate the need for hepatic biopsy prior to liver transplant. C. Eliminate the need for cardiac catheterization prior to heart transplant. D. Eliminate the need for bronchoscopy prior to lung transplant. E. Reduce the need for supplementation of sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium. 16. Which of the following is not an element of the Full Outline of Unresponsiveness (FOUR) score? A. Eye opening. B. Respiratory function. C. Brainstem reflexes. D. Motor response. E. Verbal response. 17. A 23-year-old female is currently in the ICU with status asthmaticus. She was initially on noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, with an arterial blood gas (ABG) as follows: pH 7.13, pCO(2) 60 mmHg, PaO(2) is 61 mmHg, HCO(3) 24 mmol/L, and oxygen saturation of 90%. She is given continuous inhaled albuterol, intravenous steroids, and magnesium sulfate. She subsequently becomes more lethargic and is intubated, with settings as follows: volume assist-control, rate of 12 breaths/min, tidal volume of 500 cc, PEEP of 5 cm H(2)O, and FiO(2) of 50%. Peak airway pressure is 50 cm H(2)O and plateau pressure is 15 cm H(2)O. A stat portable chest x-ray shows hyperinflation with no pneumothorax. A repeat ABG after 30 min of invasive ventilation shows the following: pH of 7.24, pCO(2) 49 mmHg, PaO(2) 71 mmHg, HCO(3) A. Increase rate to 16. B. Increase tidal volume to 600 cc. C. Initiate bicarbonate infusion. D. Switch to pressure assist-control. E. Maintain current settings. 18. Which of the following mechanisms is implicated in super-refractory status epilepticus? A. Influx of proinflammatory molecules. B. Upregulation of NMDA receptors. C. Upregulation of molecular transport molecules. D. Downregulation of GABA receptors. E. All of the above. 19. A 85-year-old male with a history nephrolithiasis, mild dementia, and alcohol abuse presented to the emergency department after a fall from standing, and was found to a right holohemispheric subdural hematoma. His clot was evacuated successfully, in spite of his oozing diathesis in the operating room (INR on arrival was 1.4 with a platelet count of 88 × 10(3)/μL). His serum transaminases are twice the normal value, and he has had refractory chronic hyponatremia. He has had three convulsions during this week of hospitalization, in spite of levetiracetam therapy at 1.5 g twice a day. Over the past 24 h, he has had a marked increase in agitation. He has also just had a 5-s run of non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and his systolic blood pressure is now 85 mmHg. You are considering discontinuing his levetiracetam and starting a new agent. Which of the following would be the best choice in this scenario? A. Carbamazepine. B. Phenytoin. C. Valproate. D. Lacosamide. E. Topiramate. 20. A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD on rescue albuterol and ipratropium is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, and started on an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. He returns several days later complaining of increased salivation and worsening bronchial secretions in the absence of fevers, purulent sputum, or increasing dyspnea. These symptoms are not relieved by use of his albuterol. On exam, he has slightly decreased air movement throughout both lung fields without any clear wheezing, no focal rales, and a normal inspiratory to expiratory ratio. Which treatment option is most likely to be beneficial? A. Increase frequency of short-acting ß(2) agonist use. B. Add a standing long-acting inhaled ß(2) agonist. C. Add glycopyrrolate as needed. D. Add inhaled corticosteroids. E. Add oral systemic corticosteroids. 21. Regarding states of impaired consciousness, which of the following statements regarding arousal and awareness is correct? A. Coma: intact arousal, but impaired awareness. B. Minimally conscious state: impaired arousal and impaired awareness. C. Persistent vegetative state: intact arousal, but impaired awareness. D. Locked-in state: intact arousal, but impaired awareness. E. All of the above are correct. 22. A 62-year-old female is currently in the ICU following craniotomy for clipping of a cerebral aneurysm. Postoperatively, she is noted to have an oxygen saturation of 92% on 50% non-rebreather face mask, and her respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. She denies chest pain. Her blood pressure is 96/72 mmHg and heart rate is 120 beats/min. Nimodipine has been held according to blood pressure parameters. A portable chest x-ray shows hazy opacities bilaterally, and bedside echocardiogram shows decreased left ventricular systolic function with apical, septal, lateral, anterior, anteroseptal and inferolateral wall akinesis, along with apical ballooning. Which of the following should be performed next? A. Intubate the patient and begin mechanical ventilation. B. Call urgent cardiology consult for cardiac catheterization. C. Start noninvasive positive airway pressure ventilation. D. Administer broad spectrum antibiotics. E. Administer albuterol and systemic corticosteroids. 23. Which of the following is the most common etiology of acute spinal cord ischemia and infarction? A. Atherosclerotic disease. B. Rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. C. Degenerative spine disease. D. Cardioembolic events. E. Systemic hypotension in the setting of other disease processes. 24. A 62-year-old female with a history of coronary artery disease has just been admitted to the ICU with a left-sided spontaneous basal ganglia hemorrhage. The patient takes 325 mg of aspirin daily at home, and you are considering platelet transfusion. Which of the following has been demonstrated regarding platelet transfusion in this setting? A. Improved chances of survival to hospital discharge. B. Decreased hospital length-of-stay. C. Improved chances of survival at 3 months. D. Improved modified Rankin scale at 3 months. E. None of the above. 25. Which of the following therapies has been shown to decrease the incidence of delayed cerebral ischemia (DCI) in the setting of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)? A. Atorvastatin. B. Magnesium. C. Methylprednisolone. D. Nicardipine. E. None of the above. 26. A 70-year-old male with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and cigarette smoking (one pack per day for the last 40 years) is currently in the ICU with a COPD exacerbation. This is his third exacerbation this year, and was discharged from the hospital only 3 weeks prior. On your examination, he is alert, his breathing is labored, and he has rales at the right lung base. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, heart rate 120 beats per minute, respirations 28 per minute, and temperature 38.3 °C. His oxygen saturation on 50% face mask is 93%, and his most recent PCO(2) is 55 mmHg. Labs are notable for the following: white blood cell count 14.4 × 10(9)/L with 90% neutrophils, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 30 mg/dL, serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL, and glucose 240 mg/dL. Ketones are negative. He is currently on noninvasive positive pressure ventilation at 10/5 cm H(2)O and 50% FiO(2), and broad spectrum antibiotics have been administered. An hour later, the nurse pages you because his heart rate is now 140 beats per minute and irregular, blood pressure is 85 systolic, oxygen saturation is 85%, and he is minimally responsive. You now hear bilateral rales, most prominently in the right lung base, and scattered wheezes. Which of the following should be performed next? A. Increase inspiratory pressure to 15 and FiO(2) to 100%. B. Start a continuous diltiazem infusion and give intravenous furosemide. C. Start a continuous phenylephrine infusion targeting a mean arterial pressure (MAP) > 65. D. Give 125 mg of solumedrol and administer albuterol via nebulizer. E. Intubate the patient and initiate mechanical ventilation. 27. A 57-year-old male with a history of epilepsy is currently in the stroke unit following a large right middle cerebral artery infarction. A nasogastric tube has been inserted, and 24 h continuous enteral feeds have been initiated. The patient is currently on 100 mg of phenytoin every 8 h for seizure prophylaxis. Which of the following measures should be taken to prevent the patient from developing subtherapeutic phenytoin levels? A. Change to 18 h tube feeds, and only administer phenytoin at night. B. Change to 18 h tube feeds, and only administer phenytoin twice daily. C. Switch from standard to hydrolyzed tube feeds. D. Switch from standard to glycemic control tube feeds. E. Hold tube feeds for 2 h before and after phenytoin administration. 28. A 37-year-old female presents to the emergency department with approximately 2 weeks of progressively worsening clumsiness and drastic mood swings. Her past medical history is significant only for Crohn’s disease, for which she takes both natalizumab and infliximab. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of her head is performed, revealing hypodense, non-enhancing lesions in the cortical white matter of the frontal and parietal lobes. Despite treatment, the patient expires 1 month later. Which of the following is true regarding the most likely diagnosis? A. The diagnosis may be confirmed via CSF analysis. B. The pathologic process spares oligodendrocytes. C. It is a prion-based disease. D. The condition is universally fatal despite treatment. E. All of the above. 29. A 58-year-old female presents to the emergency department with dry cough, fever and rapidly progressive dyspnea over 1 week. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and is maintained on weekly methotrexate and daily prednisone (which was increased to 30 mg starting 1 month ago for an acute flare). She takes no other medications. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 100/70 mmHg, heart rate 110 beats/min, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and temperature 38.0 °C. In the ED she develops progressive hypoxemia with oxygen saturation 92% on 100% nonrebreather, and is increasingly diaphoretic. She is emergently intubated, and a chest x-ray post intubation shows extensive bilateral lung opacities. Which of the following should be administered at this time? A. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. B. Vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. C. Vancomycin, cefepime, and fluconzole. D. Ceftriaxone, levofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. E. Tigecycline only 30. A 45-year-old woman undergoes uncomplicated transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary macroadenoma. She appears well hydrated and is not complaining of excessive thirst. Post-operatively, she is noted to have increased urine output. Serum sodium is 137 mEq/L, and serum osmolarity is 275 mOsm/kg. What is the most likely cause of her polyuria? A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. B. Diabetes insipidus. C. Cerebral salt wasting. D. Fluid mobilization. E. All of the above are equally likely. 31. A 36-year-old female with a recent lumbar puncture to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage is now complaining of a severe headache unlike anything she has experienced previously. She reports her headache is worse when standing, and better upon lying flat. She is otherwise neurologically intact. All of the following medications may be beneficial in this scenario except: A. Acetaminophen. B. Ibuprofen. C. Caffeine. D. Aminophylline. E. Methylprednisolone. 32. Which of the following is the most common overall cause of acute myocardial infarction? A. Coronary dissection. B. Plaque rupture. C. Imbalance between oxygen demand and supply across a fixed obstruction. D. Coronary vasospasm. E. Ischemia related to hypotension and decreased perfusion. 33. A 78-year-old male is in the ICU recovering from sepsis and pneumonia. He was just recently extubated after 2 days of mechanical ventilation and sedation with a fentanyl infusion. Over the ensuing days, he develops worsening abdominal distention, poor bowel sounds, and no stool output. CT scan reveals significant colonic distention, but no mass or obstruction. Records demonstrate a normal routine colonoscopy performed 6 weeks ago. You have appropriately hydrated the patient, corrected any electrolyte abnormalities, placed a rectal tube, withheld all opiates, and given intravenous erythromycin, but to no avail. Abdominal x-rays continue to demonstrate marked cecal dilatation greater than 12 cm in diameter. What is the next best appropriate therapy for this patient? A. Neostigmine. B. Naloxone. C. Metoclopromide. D. Surgical consultation for hemicolectomy. E. Endoscopic percutaneous cecostomy tube placement. 34. Which of the following is the most common cerebral vascular malformation in the general population? A. AV malformation. B. Dural AV fistula. C. Developmental venous anomaly. D. Cavernous malformation. E. Vein of Galen malformation. 35. A 49-year-old female with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukemia and recent subcutaneous cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reservoir placement presents to the emergency department with fever, chills, and increased confusion for the past 3 days. Her CSF reservoir was last accessed 1 week ago. A thorough work-up reveals no other obvious infectious source, and there is concern for CSF reservoir-associated meningitis. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? A. Coagulase-negative staphylococci. B. Propionobacterium acnes. C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. D. Klebsiella pneumoniae. E. Neisseria meningitidis. 36. A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with headache, nausea, and vomiting. Non-contrast head CT is performed, revealing subarachnoid blood in the right Sylvian fissure, and conventional angiography reveals the presents of a large right-sided MCA aneurysm. The patient undergoes successful surgical clipping of her aneurysm, and is being observed in the ICU. On admission, the patient’s serum sodium was 142 mEq/L and the hematocrit was 37%; by the seventh post-operative day, the serum sodium is 127 mEq/L and the hematocrit is 44%. Bedside ultrasonography demonstrates an IVC diameter of approximately 0.9 cm. Which of the following interventions would be least reasonable at this time? A. Fludrocortisone, 0.2 mg twice a day. B. 2% hypertonic saline, infused peripherally. C. 3% hypertonic saline, infused centrally. D. Sodium chloride oral tablets. E. 1500 mL daily fluid restriction. 37. Which of the following is true regarding central (non-infectious) fever? A. Less common in subarachnoid hemorrhage. B. More common versus infectious fever. C. Earlier onset versus infectious fever. D. Easier to confirm versus infectious fever. E. All of the above. 38. Flaccid paralysis is most commonly associated with which of the following forms of encephalitis? A. West Nile. B. Varicella zoster. C. Rabies. D. Herpes simplex. E. Epstein-Barr. 39. Which of the following would not be considered appropriate therapy for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? A. Discontinuation of heparin products alone. B. Danaparoid. C. Fondaparinux. D. Argatroban. E. All of the above are acceptable treatment options. 40. A 45-year-old male with severe blunt traumatic brain injury (TBI) from a motor vehicle collision suffered a ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest at the time of injury with return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in the field after endotracheal intubation and one dose of epinephrine. On arrival to the emergency department, no regional wall motion abnormalities were noted on surface echocardiography and no ST segment changes were seen on the presenting EKG. Head CT revealed cerebral contusions but no extra-axial mass lesions. The patient is now in the ICU and found to be comatose without sedation. Mild therapeutic hypothermia to 33° is being considered in the management of this post-arrest patient. Which of the following statements is true? A. Mild therapeutic hypothermia is contraindicated due to the risk of induced epilepsy. B. Mild therapeutic hypothermia is contraindicated with any intracranial pathology on CT imaging. C. Mild therapeutic hypothermia does not induce a clinically significant coagulopathy. D. Patients who have sustained ROSC after an arrest associated with TBI do not benefit from therapeutic hypothermia. E. Endovascular cooling is superior to surface cooling in young patients with ROSC. 41. A 35-year-old male is in the intensive care unit following resection of a large right-sided meningioma. He is currently intubated and sedated on a continuous fentanyl infusion. The nurse calls you to the bedside due to concerns over “unusual ventilator waveforms”. Upon arrival, you note the following (see Image 1). What is the best way to describe this phenomenon? A. Reverse triggering. B. Double triggering. C. Breath stacking. D. Missed triggering. E. None of the above; normal ventilator waveforms are present;
    Keywords covid19
    Publisher PMC
    Document type Article ; Online
    DOI 10.1007/978-3-319-64632-9_4
    Database COVID19

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  6. Article ; Online: Postoperative dyspnea mimicking pulmonary embolism as a result of regional nerve block.

    Levy, Zachary David / Steinhoff, Hannah

    Internal and emergency medicine

    2016  Volume 11, Issue 8, Page(s) 1143–1144

    MeSH term(s) Adult ; Anxiety/etiology ; Brachial Plexus Block/adverse effects ; Dyspnea/etiology ; Humans ; Male ; Nerve Block/adverse effects ; Postoperative Complications/diagnosis ; Pulmonary Embolism/diagnosis ; Respiratory Paralysis/diagnosis ; Respiratory Paralysis/etiology
    Language English
    Publishing date 2016-12
    Publishing country Italy
    Document type Case Reports ; Journal Article
    ZDB-ID 2454173-4
    ISSN 1970-9366 ; 1828-0447
    ISSN (online) 1970-9366
    ISSN 1828-0447
    DOI 10.1007/s11739-016-1400-3
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  7. Article ; Online: Accessing the Eustachian tube: Conventional nasal spray vs. exhalation delivery system and the impact of targeted endoscopic sinus surgery on topical distribution patterns.

    Axiotakis, Lucas G / Spielman, Daniel B / Gudis, David A / Yang, Nathan / Yan, Carol H / Soler, Zachary M / Levy, Joshua M / Rowan, Nicholas R / Irace, Alexandria L / Vilarello, Brandon J / Jacobson, Patricia T / Overdevest, Jonathan B

    International forum of allergy & rhinology

    2023  Volume 14, Issue 3, Page(s) 660–667

    Abstract: Background: Eustachian tube dysfunction (ETD) may occur distinct from, or in conjunction with, chronic rhinosinusitis (CRS+ETD). Intranasal corticosteroid sprays are often prescribed for ETD, although ET distribution may be limited. To date, no anatomic ...

    Abstract Background: Eustachian tube dysfunction (ETD) may occur distinct from, or in conjunction with, chronic rhinosinusitis (CRS+ETD). Intranasal corticosteroid sprays are often prescribed for ETD, although ET distribution may be limited. To date, no anatomic studies compare nasopharynx (NP) distribution between conventional nasal sprays (NS) and exhalation delivery systems (EDS) after surgery. This study utilizes a cadaver model to examine topical NP delivery using EDS vs. NS before and after targeted endoscopic sinus surgery (ESS).
    Methods: Sixteen sinonasal cavities were administered fluorescein solution via NS and EDS before and after maxillary antrostomy and anterior ethmoidectomy, followed by nasal endoscopy of the NP and ET orifice. Seven blinded experts submitted staining ratings of endoscopy images on a 0- to 3-point scale, with ratings averaged for analysis.
    Results: Interrater reliability was excellent (intraclass correlation, 0.956). EDS was associated with significantly greater NP staining vs. NS in a pooled cohort of nonsurgical and ESS specimens (1.19 ± 0.81 vs. 0.78 ± 1.06; p = 0.043). Using a logistic regression model, EDS significantly outperformed NS in nonsurgical (odds ratio [OR], 3.49; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.21-10.09; p = 0.021) and post-ESS (OR, 9.00; 95% CI, 1.95-41.5; p = 0.005) specimens, with the greatest relative staining observed for EDS after targeted ESS (OR, 18.99; 95% CI, 3.44-104.85; p = 0.001).
    Conclusions: EDS is more effective than NS in topical delivery to the NP and ET orifices in cadavers. Targeted ESS may facilitate greater NP penetration by EDS compared with NS, with possible synergism after ESS for augmented delivery. These findings suggest a role for EDS delivery methods for ETD management and in CRS+ETD patients undergoing sinus surgery.
    MeSH term(s) Humans ; Nasal Sprays ; Eustachian Tube/surgery ; Exhalation ; Reproducibility of Results ; Endoscopy ; Chronic Disease ; Rhinitis ; Nasal Polyps/surgery
    Chemical Substances Nasal Sprays
    Language English
    Publishing date 2023-08-17
    Publishing country United States
    Document type Journal Article
    ZDB-ID 2625826-2
    ISSN 2042-6984 ; 2042-6976
    ISSN (online) 2042-6984
    ISSN 2042-6976
    DOI 10.1002/alr.23248
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  8. Article ; Online: Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis secondary to levetiracetam and valproic acid use.

    Levy, Zachary David / Slowey, Megan / Schulder, Michael

    The American journal of emergency medicine

    2017  Volume 35, Issue 7, Page(s) 1036.e1–1036.e2

    Abstract: Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP) is a rare cutaneous eruption characterized by the appearance of diffuse, sterile pustules on an erythematous and edematous base. Most cases are attributed to drug reactions, with antibiotics being the ... ...

    Abstract Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP) is a rare cutaneous eruption characterized by the appearance of diffuse, sterile pustules on an erythematous and edematous base. Most cases are attributed to drug reactions, with antibiotics being the most common offending agents. Only a handful of case reports have described AGEP in the setting of antiepileptic use. Here, we report a case of AGEP secondary to dual antiepileptic therapy with levetiracetam and valproic acid in a 73-year-old female. The patient presented to the emergency department with the characteristic AGEP rash, fever, and leukocytosis. Upon discontinuation of the two medications and conservative management, the patient's symptoms quickly abated, and she was discharged from the hospital several days later.
    MeSH term(s) Acute Generalized Exanthematous Pustulosis/diagnosis ; Acute Generalized Exanthematous Pustulosis/pathology ; Aged ; Anticonvulsants/adverse effects ; Female ; Humans ; Piracetam/adverse effects ; Piracetam/analogs & derivatives ; Treatment Outcome ; Valproic Acid/adverse effects
    Chemical Substances Anticonvulsants ; etiracetam (230447L0GL) ; Valproic Acid (614OI1Z5WI) ; Piracetam (ZH516LNZ10)
    Language English
    Publishing date 2017-07
    Publishing country United States
    Document type Case Reports ; Journal Article
    ZDB-ID 605890-5
    ISSN 1532-8171 ; 0735-6757
    ISSN (online) 1532-8171
    ISSN 0735-6757
    DOI 10.1016/j.ajem.2017.02.017
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  9. Article ; Online: Redifferentiated cardiomyocytes retain residual dedifferentiation signatures and are protected against ischemic injury.

    Shakked, Avraham / Petrover, Zachary / Aharonov, Alla / Ghiringhelli, Matteo / Umansky, Kfir-Baruch / Kain, David / Elkahal, Jacob / Divinsky, Yalin / Nguyen, Phong Dang / Miyara, Shoval / Friedlander, Gilgi / Savidor, Alon / Zhang, Lingling / Perez, Dahlia E / Sarig, Rachel / Lendengolts, Daria / Bueno-Levy, Hanna / Kastan, Nathaniel / Levin, Yishai /
    Bakkers, Jeroen / Gepstein, Lior / Tzahor, Eldad

    Nature cardiovascular research

    2023  Volume 2, Issue 4, Page(s) 383–398

    Abstract: Cardiomyocyte proliferation and dedifferentiation have fueled the field of regenerative cardiology in recent years, whereas the reverse process of redifferentiation remains largely unexplored. Redifferentiation is characterized by the restoration of ... ...

    Abstract Cardiomyocyte proliferation and dedifferentiation have fueled the field of regenerative cardiology in recent years, whereas the reverse process of redifferentiation remains largely unexplored. Redifferentiation is characterized by the restoration of function lost during dedifferentiation. Previously, we showed that ERBB2-mediated heart regeneration has these two distinct phases: transient dedifferentiation and redifferentiation. Here we survey the temporal transcriptomic and proteomic landscape of dedifferentiation-redifferentiation in adult mouse hearts and reveal that well-characterized dedifferentiation features largely return to normal, although elements of residual dedifferentiation remain, even after the contractile function is restored. These hearts appear rejuvenated and show robust resistance to ischemic injury, even 5 months after redifferentiation initiation. Cardiomyocyte redifferentiation is driven by negative feedback signaling and requires LATS1/2 Hippo pathway activity. Our data reveal the importance of cardiomyocyte redifferentiation in functional restoration during regeneration but also protection against future insult, in what could lead to a potential prophylactic treatment against ischemic heart disease for at-risk patients.
    Language English
    Publishing date 2023-03-08
    Publishing country England
    Document type Journal Article
    ISSN 2731-0590
    ISSN (online) 2731-0590
    DOI 10.1038/s44161-023-00250-w
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  10. Article ; Online: Ventriculoperitoneal Shunt Infection with Mycobacterium abscessus: A Rare Cause of Ventriculitis.

    Levy, Zachary D / Du, Victor / Chiluwal, Amrit / Chalif, David J / Ledoux, David E

    World neurosurgery

    2016  Volume 86, Page(s) 510.e1–4

    Abstract: Background: Mycobacterium abscessus is a rapidly growing atypical mycobacterium implicated in chronic lung disease, otitis media, surgical site infections, and disseminated cutaneous diseases. It is typically seen in patients with some degree of ... ...

    Abstract Background: Mycobacterium abscessus is a rapidly growing atypical mycobacterium implicated in chronic lung disease, otitis media, surgical site infections, and disseminated cutaneous diseases. It is typically seen in patients with some degree of immunosuppression. Only 1 previous case has been reported in the setting of ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt infection. We report a case of M abscessus as the causative organism in a VP shunt infection in an immunocompetent adult.
    Case description: A 67-year-old woman required VP shunt placement after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage complicated by hydrocephalus. Her course was complicated by repeat hospitalization for 2 shunt infections, the second of which did not respond to standard antibiotic therapy. Cultures repeatedly grew M abscessus. The patient continued to decline and eventually died after transfer to the palliative care service.
    Conclusions: Nontuberculous mycobacteria are rare, atypical organisms in the setting of VP shunt infection. Patients with ventriculitis secondary to atypical mycobacteria may exhibit drug-resistant cerebrospinal fluid pleocytosis in the face of standard antibiotic regimens.
    MeSH term(s) Aged ; Catheter-Related Infections/diagnosis ; Catheter-Related Infections/microbiology ; Catheter-Related Infections/therapy ; Cerebral Ventriculitis/diagnosis ; Cerebral Ventriculitis/microbiology ; Cerebral Ventriculitis/therapy ; Fatal Outcome ; Female ; Humans ; Hydrocephalus/surgery ; Mycobacterium Infections, Nontuberculous/diagnosis ; Mycobacterium Infections, Nontuberculous/etiology ; Mycobacterium Infections, Nontuberculous/therapy ; Nontuberculous Mycobacteria ; Ventriculoperitoneal Shunt/adverse effects
    Language English
    Publishing date 2016-02
    Publishing country United States
    Document type Case Reports ; Journal Article
    ZDB-ID 2534351-8
    ISSN 1878-8769 ; 1878-8750
    ISSN (online) 1878-8769
    ISSN 1878-8750
    DOI 10.1016/j.wneu.2015.10.068
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